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Exam Code: 000-532
Exam Name: IBM (Tivoli Storage Manager v6.2 Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 143 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product is required to provide integration for Oracle?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Oracle
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Databases
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the best approach to implement daily IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) processing?
A. Check if the current process is to implement a complete manual control as load is unpredictable.
B. Check if the Disaster Recovery Manager is installed; it will automatically create the necessary
schedules.
C. Check if there is a server maintenance script scheduled which guarantees that each command inside it
completes before another one starts.
D. The TSM default administration schedules provided at installation time are in line with best practices
recommendations, there is no additional effort required.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product is required to backup IBM Lotus Notes servers?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Databases
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Lotus Notes
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
Answer: A

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NO.4 Client jobs are unnecessarily tying up the resources on the server and they either overlap or do not
complete properly in time. What is an area to review to improve performance?
A. Run reclamation on the storage pool.
B. Investigate the use of server free backup.
C. Investigate the timing and sequencing of the client jobs.
D. Upgrade from IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Basic Edition to the Extended Edition.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement accurately reflects why reclamation should be controlled using schedules?
A. Reclamation prevents recalling offsite copy pool tapes in an uncontrolled manner.
B. Unscheduled reclamation can cause bottleneck(s) on the disk based storage pool(s).
C. Controlling reclamation is desirable because it demands heavy use of the tape drives.
D. Reclamation in an unscheduled fashion can cause collocated pools to become non-collocated.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Windows server is running out of disk space. Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product can
be used to free up disk space while keeping the files available?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for ERP
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager HSM for Windows
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for System Backup and Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which scenario would benefit from using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) server side data
deduplication?
A. The customer wants to reduce the required amount of disk space for the TSM storage pools.
B. The customer wants to reduce the required number of tape cartridges in the tape storage pools.
C. Backup windows are not currently being met; data deduplication reduces the amount of data being
sent to the TSM sever.
D. When the network is reaching its capacity limit, data deduplication reduces the amount of data being
sent over the network.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What can be configured on a backup copy group?
A. The number of days to keep an archive copy.
B. The collocation group for the nodes in the copy group's domain.
C. A group of nodes that are acted upon as if they were a single entity.
D. The backup versions to retain for files that have been deleted from the client.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product is required to provide integration for backups of SAP
database servers?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Databases
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for System Backup and Recovery
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Enterprise Resource Planning
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement accurately reflects what problem might occur if migration is allowed to run during
normal client backups?
A. It does not matter as client backups happen independently of migration to their respective storage
pools.
B. If migration is allowed to run during normal client backups, too much CPU utilization can result in a
server crash.
C. If migration happens in an ad hoc manner, it will not be able to honor the MIGDELAY setting for the
cached files in the disk pool.
D. Migration of the primary storage pools during client backup will slow down the client backup sessions
and can impact the scheduling of other server processes.
Answer: D

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NO.11 A user archived a file that was being modified by an application at the moment of the archive. When
the file is retrieved, the file is not usable. Which parameter should be changed in the archive copy group?
A. Mode
B. Frequency
C. Destination
D. Serialization
Answer: D

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NO.12 When does a version of a file become inactive?
A. When a client stores a more recent archive version.
B. When the client stores a more recent backup version.
C. When a client stores a backup version that exceeds the value specified in the frequency parameter.
D. When a client stops backup activity for a period longer than the value specified in the RETExtra
parameter.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the function of client side data deduplication in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. It is used on the Backup-Archive client to remove redundant data on the local disk before data is
transferred to the TSM server.
B. It is used on the TSM server to remove redundant data from the backup and archive clients during
backup and archive processing.
C. It is used on the Backup-Archive client to remove redundant data during backup and archive
processing before the data is transferred to the TSM sever.
D. It is used on the Backup-Archive client to remove redundant data during backup and archive
processing, and then it encrypts or compresses the data before it is transferred to the TSM sever.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A Linux server is running out of disk space. Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product may be
used to free up disk space while keeping the files available?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for ERP
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager HSM for Windows
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for System Backup and Recovery
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which statements accurately reflect the purpose of creating a daily maintenance schedule in IBM
Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. To ensure that storage pools are free of viruses.
B. Provide for a mechanism to periodically check the integrity of data received using cyclic redundancy
code.
C. Facilitate an automated daily mechanism to apply regular maintenance patches to the TSM server and
relieve the TSM administrator of manual labor.
D. Facilitate an automated daily mechanism to run an orderly maintenance script to do storage pool
backups, database backup, data migration, and inventory expiration.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which statement is true about server side data deduplication in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. It is performed by the TSM server on a file pool.
B. It is performed by the TSM server and requires that all clients participate in the data deduplication
function.
C. It is performed by the TSM server before the data is transferred over the network from the
Backup-Archive client to a file pool.
D. It is performed by the TSM server when data is written to sequential tape media to reduce the required
number of tape cartridges.
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the appropriate time to backup the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager database in daily processing?
A. after client backups in the evening and before backing up all storage pools
B. after sending disaster recovery tapes offsite, but before backing up all storage pools
C. after client backups and backing up all storage pools, but before sending disaster recovery tapes
offsite
D. before performing client backup and backing up all storage pools and sending the disaster recovery
tapes offsite
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statement is true about a policy set?
A. It specifies the destination of active-data pools.
B. There can be only one active policy set per domain.
C. There can only be one default policy set per domain.
D. It contains the default retention of backups when a management class is deleted.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which policy components can be contained within a domain?
A. backup sets and device classes
B. archive copy groups and node groups
C. collocation groups and management classes
D. management classes and backup copy groups
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager family product provides LAN-free data movement for Windows
servers running IBM Lotus Notes?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Lotus Notes
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager LAN-free Agent
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager LAN-free for Intel Platforms
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-421
Exam Name: IBM (InfoSphere DataStage v8.5)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 194 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Click the exhibit button.
You submit a job from DataStage Director and then log onto your DataStage Linux server to issue the
command "ps -ef | grep ds" and receive the following screen: Which process is a player?
A. 7117
B. 7215
C. 7216
D. 7217
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where are project level message handlers defined?
A. DSENV
B. Director Client
C. Designer Client
D. Administrator Client
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are responsible for deploying objects into your customers production environment. To ensure the
stability of the production system the customer does not permit compilers on production machines. They
have also protected the project and only development machines have the required compiler. What two
options will allow jobs with a parallel transformer to execute in the customers production machines?
(Choose two.)
A. Add $APT_COMPILE_OPT=-portable
B. Set $APT_COPY_TRANSFORM_OPERATOR
C. Export the jobs with Information Server Manager with the executables.
D. Create a package with Information Server Manager and select the option to include executables.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 You would like to pass values into parameters that will be used in a variety of downstream activity
stages within a job sequence. What are three valid ways to do this? (Choose three.)
A. Use local parameters.
B. Use environment variables.
C. Place a parameter set stage on the job sequence.
D. Check the "Propagate Parameters" checkbox in the Sequence Job properties.
E. Use theUserVariablesActivity Stage to populate the local parameters from an outside source such as a
file.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 To better understand the data flowing through a job, it is desirable to have structural information about
the datasets captured in the job log. Which environment variable can provide this information?
A. $OSH_STDOUT_MSG
B. $OSH_PRINT_SCHEMAS
C. $APT_PM_PLAYER_MEMORY
D. $APT_NO_PART_INSERTION
Answer: B

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NO.6 You set environment variable $APT_ORACLE_LOAD_OPTIONS=PTIONS(DIRECT=TRUE,
PARALLEL=TRUE)?for loading index organized tables.You set environment variable
$APT_ORACLE_LOAD_OPTIONS=?PTIONS(DIRECT=TRUE, PARALLEL=TRUE)?for loading index
organized tables. Which statement is accurate regarding the resulting effect of this environment variable
setting?
A. Oracle load will fail when executed.
B. Oracle load will run in parallel and bypassDataStage Director.
C. The Oracle load will run in parallel using simple direct path mode.
D. The Oracle database stage will run in parallel using conventional path mode.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What would help debug the run-time environment?
A. $APT_VERBOSE
B. $OSH_PRINT_SCHEMAS
C. Check the message filters for the job.
D. View detailed runtime stats through Job monitor in Director Client.
Answer: B

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NO.8 DataStageoffers database connectivity through connectors, native parallel and plug-in stage types.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. ODBC API is a plug-in stage.
B. Next to the connector stage it is best to use the native parallel database stages.
C. The connector stage offers better functionality and performance and is the best to use.
D. For maximum parallel performance, scalability, and features it is best to use the native parallel
database stages.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 When you configure a domain for source code integration a source control workspace is created. What
are two reasons for the source control workspace? (Choose two.)
A. default directory foristool exports.
B. directory for deployment package files
C. local transfer area for assets being submitted to the source control system
D. provides a place to store the archive created by IS source code control integration
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 You are responsible for the projects Source Code Repository. When a developer notifies you that
changes are ready to deploy you must first check them in. You will use the Information Server Source
Code integration features to check in the changed assets. How will you identify the DataStage assets the
developer modified in order to send them to the workspace?
A. From the Information Server Manager Select theproject then right-click on Synchronize with source
code control system.
B. Use Designer client Advanced Find, specify a modification date and the developer's username in the
Modified by fields.
C. From Information Server Manager use Search with advanced options, specify a date modified and the
developer's user name in the Modified by fields.
D. From the workspace perspective select the project Right-click then Refresh fromrepository,specify a
modification date and the developer's username in the Modified by fields.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are working on a project that contains a large number of jobs contained in many folders. You would
like to review the jobs created by the former developer of the project. How can you find these jobs?
A. Filter jobs in Director Client's Repository window.
B. Sort the jobs by date in the Repository window.
C. Use the Advanced Find feature contained in the Designer interface.
D. While selecting the top folder in the project, choose Find Dependencies.
Answer: C

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NO.12 In which two situations is it appropriate to use a Sparse Lookup? (Choose two.)
A. When accessing DB2 data using the DB2 API stage.
B. When the output of the Lookup stage needs to be hashed partitioned.
C. When reference data is significantly larger than the streaming data (100:1).
D. When invoking a stored procedure within a database per row in the streaming link.
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 Click on the Exhibit button.
A. 3 processes on 2 nodes
B. 3 processes on 3 nodes
C. 2 processes on 2 nodes
D. 2 processes on 3 nodes
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are about to begin major changes to jobs in a project. You want to conveniently identify job
changes on an ad hoc basis. What two tasks will allow you to identify changes to your jobs? (Choose
two.)
A. Import the original job from a .dsx export.
B. Select the job,then right click Compare within.
C. Select the job,then right click Cross Project Compare.
D. Before making a change to a job make a copy of the job in a different category folder.
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 You are experiencing performance issues for a given job. You are assigned the task of understanding
what is happening at run time for that job. What are the first two steps you should take to understand the
job performance issues? (Choose two.)
A. Review the objectives of the job.
B. Run job with $APT_TRACE_RUN set to true.
C. Run job with $APT_DUMP_SCORE set to true.
D. Replace Transformer stages with custom operators.
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 Which two property areas must be configured when using the ODBC connector stage as a target in
your job design? (Choose two.)
A. Define columns for the output link.
B. Specify the remote server property.
C. Specify properties for the input link.
D. Define the connection properties to an ODBC data source.
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 hich three of the following options does the dsjob command have? (Choose three.)
A. Stopping a job
B. Setting an alias for a job
C. Specifying an appropriate log file
D. Listing projects, jobs, stages, links, and parameters
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 Click on the Exhibit button.
Provided you have enough system resources, what is the maximum number of jobs that could be running
concurrently in this image?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two statements are accurate regarding usage of database stages? (Choose two.)
A. Plug-in stages match columns by name.
B. Native database stages match columns by name.
C. DataStage provides native Oracle database stages.
D. Database stages cannot create tables and must be done externally.
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 You have been asked to delete a shared container from the project by your customer. Before you do
this you want to make sure it will not impact other objects in the project. How will you ensure that deleting
the shared container will not cause a failure when jobs are recompiled?
A. Select the shared container, Right-click on the Where used command.
B. Select the shared container, Right-click on the Where used (deep) command.
C. Select the shared container, Right-click on the Dependencies (deep) command.
D. Advanced find, set Dependencies Of field equal to the container name, and Check the Option
toInclude nested results for Dependency searches.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-914
Exam Name: IBM (Administering IBM Lotus Quickr 8.5 for Domino)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Using the report command, you can retrieve the following information from the Place Catalog about
places, EXCEPT?
A. Name and Title
B. Date last accessed and Date last modified
C. Members of the Place
D. Size of the Place
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which one of the following commands should be used when upgrading a Quickr template?
A. loadqptool upgrade -pt PlaceType
B. loadqptool upgrade -p PlaceType
C. loadqptool upgrade -t template
D. loadqptool PlaceType upgrade -t
Answer: A

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NO.3 Oscar, the local administrator, has issued the following qptool command on his Lotus Quickr server:
load qptool placecatalog -reset Which of the following statistics are reset to zero (0) with this command?
A. LasyDayUses
B. DocReadCounts
C. NumberOfDocs
D. PlaceLastModified
Answer: B

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NO.4 As a Quickr administrator, what would you do to find out the size of all places on the server?
A. Review the files sizes in the place directories indomino_data_root\LotusQuickr on the server
B. In the Notes client, open PlaceCatalog.nsf and open the Places and Rooms view
C. Run the command: loadqptool report -q [PlaceSize]>1000
D. From Places Administration, click on Statistics and then Download Statistics
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Lotus Quickr environment you are viewing has a large number of places. Which of the following
options will decrease directory search times while in the Human Resources place on the Lotus Quickr
server?
A. Rebuild the LDAP cache in the place
B. Enable Narrow searches to the place name
C. Modify the LDAP port number to an alternate port
D. Enable check for SSL connection with LDAP user directory
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following qpconfig.xml settings should be used in order to hide the Log In and Log Out
link from the Lotus Quickr homepage?
A. <authentication>
<sign_out enabled="false"/>
<sign_in enabled="false"/>
</authentication>
B. <authentication>
<sign_out hide="true"/>
<sign_in hide="true"/>
</authentication>
C. <security>
<sign_out enabled="false"/>
<sign_in enabled="false"/>
......
</security>
D. <security>
<sign_out disabled="true"/>
<sign_in disabled="true"/>
......
</security>
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have created templates for places on your Lotus Quickr server. As an example, suppose you
create the place Sales and give it the look and feel you want to appear in places that members of the
Sales team create. You create a PlaceType from it called Sales PlaceType, and then you create the place
West Coast Sales from Sales PlaceType. Which of the following occurs if you change the design of Sales
and wish to distribute the design changes?
A. Refresh only Sales to distribute the changes
B. Refresh West Coast Sales to distribute the changes
C. Refresh SalesPlaceType and then West Coast Sales to distribute the changes
D. RefreshSales, refresh West Coast Sales, and then Sales PlaceType to distribute the changes
Answer: C

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NO.8 When configuring Quickr to integrate with an ECM, which of the followings parameters must be set in
the qpconfig.xml?
A. <ecm_integration enabled="true">
B. <ecm enabled="true">
C. <quickr_ecm disable="false">
D. <quickr_integration ecm="true">
Answer: A

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NO.9 What access level do members need to have to use My Places to perform place administration tasks?
A. Reader Access
B. Editor Access
C. Manager Access
D. Author Access
Answer: C

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NO.10 You must have which of the following accesses to a place to create, edit, copy, delete, or run PlaceBots
manually?
A. Author
B. Editor
C. Designer
D. Manager
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the proper way to use the qptool register command to register a single place and have it create
a mail-in document in a single Quickr server?
A. loadqptool register -p PlaceName
B. loadqptool register -a PlaceName
C. loadqptool register -p PlaceName -install
D. loadqptool register -p PlaceName -mail-in
Answer: C

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NO.12 Barry, a QuickPlace Administrator, uses the QPtool remove command to remove a place. Which of the
following statements about removing places using the remove command is correct?
A. By default, the remove command removes places immediately
B. You must use the remove command on each user in the removed place also
C. You must configure theQPTool Remove field in the server document to determine when the place is
removed
D. If you use the remove command, you do not have to use the unregister command to remove the place
document
Answer: D

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NO.13 Each of the following statements is true about the Place Catalog in Quickr 8.5, EXCEPT?
A. Each server, place, and room has a separate entry in the Place Catalog
B. The Place Catalog contains Policy documents
C. It enables place members to use My Places to see a list of places they belong to and statistics about
those places
D. The Place Catalog contains the statistics of each place
Answer: D

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NO.14 Louise has installed one Lotus Quickr server in her organization and she now wants to enable
cross-place searches. Which of the following tasks is NOT required when enabling Cross Places
Searches?
A. Set <search_places enabled="true" ....> in the qpconfig.xml
B. Enable SSO
C. Enable Domain Catalog in the Domino Server document that will be used as the Domain
catalog Server
D. Specify the Domain Catalog Server under <domain_catalog_server...> in the qpconfig.xml
Answer: B

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NO.15 After configuring Web page cache settings within Lotus Quickr, if a Web page is cached, subsequent
requests for the page are served from the cached copy by the server. How are these cached copies
stored?
A. Per place
B. Server wide
C. Per user name
D. Per group name
Answer: C

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NO.16 While placing the necessary files onto the Lotus Sametime server for Lotus Quickr integration, you must
manually create which of the following folders for the files?
A. awareness
B. usernames
C. integration
D. peopleonline
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following tasks is required when you have to change your LDAP connections to use SSL,
and Lotus Quickr is using Domino to control the Directory services?
A. Configure SSL in the Directory Assistance document
B. Configure SSL under <ldap> in the qpconfig.xml
C. Enable SSL in the Site Administration Page, under Directory services
D. Quickr does not support SSL connections to LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.18 You would like to prevent a Place from receiving updates to the parent PlaceType. What should you do
to prevent the refresh?
A. Under Customize -Basics, clear the check mark next to Receive Updates
B. Change thePlaceType under Place Administration
C. Under Work with Templates, edit the PlaceType
D. Youcan not prevent a Place from refreshing from the parent PlaceType
Answer: A

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NO.19 During installation, you specified a Lotus Quickr Administrator. In which of the following locations is the
administrator stored by default?
A. In the local Lotus Domino Directory
B. As a local member of the server's Site Administration place
C. qpsecurity.xml
D. In both the local Lotus Domino Directory and the Site Administration place
Answer: B

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NO.20 Several of the Places on your server have exceeded a predetermined size limit. How can you send a
broadcast email to the Place managers to ask them to reduce the size of their Places?
A. Using the Send Mail feature in Site Administration
B. Using the command: loadqptool mail -managers -template template.xsl -i mail.xml
C. Using the Send Mail feature in Place Administration
D. Using the command: loadqptool newsletter -a -managers -i mail.xml
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-030
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager V7.2 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 202 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two types of objects can be defined as Recipients in a communication template? (Choose two.)
A. Role
B. User
C. Craft
D. Labor
E. Person
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which statement is true when configuring a new toolbar icon?
A. All toolbar items must have an access key.
B. Icons can be nested by providing a subposition value for the icon.
C. A new EAR file must be built to contain any new GIF images displayed on the toolbar.
D. New toolbar images can be uploaded through the file upload capability in Application Designer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How can an administrator show a KPI of incidents in the NEW status?
A. Create the KPI in the Incident application.
B. Create the KPI in the Application Designer.
C. Configure the Start Center to display the KPI.
D. Run reports in the Incident application and view the KPI.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the Report Level Security function in the Report Administration application?
A. It allows an administrator to set the report security for a Person Group.
B. It allows an administrator to set the security for a single report on the Security tab.
C. It allows an administrator to set the security for a selected type of report or all reports.
D. It allows an administrator to set the group security for an application and all reports in the selected
application.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which action must be taken before an Enterprise Service can be used in an integration?
A. It must be enabled.
B. It must be activated.
C. A backup version must be saved.
D. A process revision must be made.
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which statement is true about creating a self service request?
A. Multiple assets can be selected.
B. Single CIs and single assets can be selected.
C. Multiple CIs and single assets can be selected.
D. Multiple configuration items (CIs) can be selected.
Answer:B

IBM   000-030   000-030

NO.7 The Search Solutions application results are not ordered by rank. Which XML file can be modified to
order results by rank?
A. library.xml
B. solrank.xml
C. solution.xml
D. searchsol.xml
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which Application Designer function must be performed to obtain the files required to modify lookup
IDs?
A. Export System XML
B. Export Application Definition
C. Add/Modify Signature Options
D. Duplicate Application Definition
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two values are used in determining the internal priority of service desk tickets? (Choose two.)
A. Impact
B. Critical
C. Urgency
D. Indicated
E. Reported
Answer:A,C

IBM test   000-030   000-030 answers real questions

NO.10 Which minimum data must match in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) and the record to allow IBM
Tivoli Service Request Manager V7.2 to logically select an SLA to apply to a work order or ticket record?
A. Escalation Point
B. Data on the Conditions tab
C. Data on the Service Level Agreement tab
D. Start Date, End Date, Object, Commitment
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which statement about survey questions is correct?
A. A question can only be edited if the survey status is Draft.
B. A question can be deleted while in Active or Archive status.
C. A question can be moved from Active to Archive status once it is assigned or associated to a survey.
D. A question will appear in the selection list when selecting questions to add to a survey once a question
is in Archive status.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which application is used to enable auditing on attributes?
A. Classifications
B. System Properties
C. Application Designer
D. Database Configuration
Answer: D

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NO.13 Why is the httpd.conf file edited when configuring the ability to link or attach documents in IBM Tivoli
Service Request Manager V7.2?
A. to identify the root directory for attached documents
B. to specify the type of documents that can be attached
C. to identify what documents to exclude from attachment
D. to specify the number of documents that can be attached
Answer: A

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NO.14 What can be defined when creating an escalation that is enabled when a record reaches a defined
escalation point?
A. Multiple escalation points and each escalation point can be associated with only one action and one
notification.
B. Only one escalation point per action or notification to associate with the escalation before activating the
escalation.
C. Only one escalation point per action or notification to associate with the escalation before validating the
escalation.
D. Multiple escalation points and corresponding actions or notifications can be associated with the
escalation before activating the escalation.
Answer:D

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NO.15 When in the Actions application, what are two valid actions available for an Incident? (Choose two.)
A. Close SR
B. Apply SLA
C. Create Notification
D. Workflow Auto Reject
E. Create Response Plan
Answer:A,D

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NO.16 How can a current result set be changed in the Start Center?
A. click Display Settings
B. click Update Start Center
C. click the pencil icon in the portlet
D. remove the portlet and insert a new one
Answer: C

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NO.17 The importreport.cmd batch file is available to import reports in IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager
V7.2.Which statement is true about the importreport.cmd batch file?
A. It can import BIRT and CRYSTAL reports.
B. It can import only one report or library at a time.
C. It can import multiple reports and libraries at one time but only for BIRT reports.
D. It can import multiple reports and libraries at one time but only for CRYSTAL reports.
Answer:C

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NO.18 Which types of service can be associated with a Service Group?
A. BOTH, ACQUIRE, RENDER
B. BOTH, REQUEST, RENDER
C. BOTH, ACQUIRE, DELIVER
D. BOTH, PROVIDE, PROCURE
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which two properties of a Start Center query can be edited by the owner of the query after it has been
saved? (Choose two.)
A. Site
B. Status
C. Clause
D. Description
E. Owner Group
Answer:C,D

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NO.20 What is copied by the system when an escalation is duplicated?
A. All information from the existing escalation.
B. Information from the existing escalation with the exception of actions.
C. Only information from the existing escalation in the header of the escalation.
D. All information from the existing escalation, header, and escalation points but not actions and
notifications.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-057
Exam Name: IBM (AppScan Source Edition)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Why are users not able to create custom rules, set validators, and perform issue management from the
IDE plug-ins?
A. because these tasks should be performed by specialists and applied consistently by all users
B. because rules and validators are not configurable
C. because this planned functionality has not yet been extended to the plug-ins
D. because the plug-ins do not communicate directly with the AppScan Core
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which approach to security testing is covered by AppScan Source Edition?
A. manual
B. black box
C. white box
D. gray box
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three operating systems support all of the client components of AppScan Source Edition.?
(Choose three.)
A. OS X
B. Solaris
C. Windows 7
D. Windows XP
E. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 What is HTTP response splitting?
A. changing Web pages in the cache to attack users
B. overloading a server with excess information
C. altering information, such as product prices, in hidden fields
D. modifying cookies to gain access to other users' accounts
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the first step that should be taken once the Standard Desktop installation has completed?
A. set the admin password
B. create the database user
C. import custom filters
D. import an application or environment
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which company offers the primary competition to AppScan Source Edition?
A. Fortify/HP
B. Veracode
C. Microsoft
D. Compuware
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which customer situation signals a good opportunity for AppScan Source Edition?
A. They have an in-house team of security specialists.
B. They are looking for the solution with the lowest price.
C. Their application is just entering production.
D. They are short on time due to delays in application development.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which deployment configuration do developers routinely scan their code from an IDE plug-in at their
own convenience?
A. Late Stage
B. Low Touch
C. Center of Excellence
D. Mature Deployment LDAP
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about custom rules and markup? (Choose two.)
A. Users can create their own checks in any file using regular expressions and other techniques through a
configuration screen.
B. Users can mark up third-party libraries and custom code to determine which vulnerabilities they are
concerned about.
C. AppScan Source does not ship with markup for standard libraries and common frameworks, so users
will need to mark up all libraries and methods they want as sources/sinks in order to get effective scan
results.
D. Users can mark up any file from IDE plug-ins or from a configuration screen in AppScan Source for
Security.
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 From which three places can remediation information be accessed for a finding? (Choose three.)
A. from the IDE using a developer plug-in
B. from the Analysis view in the Security Interface
C. from the Reporting Console
D. from the AppScan Knowledgebase Web site
E. from the Triage view in the Security Interface
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: 000-606
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Business Modeler Advanced Edition V7.0, Business Analysis and Design)
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Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which steps would a process analyst take when conducting a simu-lation of "what-if" scenarios for a
business process instance?
A. Make a copy of the simula-tion snapshot, rename it, change the attributes for the "what-if" scenario and
re-run the simula-tion and analyze the results
B. Make a copy of the simula-tion profile, rename it, change the simula-tion attributes for the "what-if"
scenario and re-run the simula-tion and analyze the results.
C. Right click on the simula-tion profile, select Profile Analysis > New Profile and change the attributes for
the "what-if" scenario and then re-run the simula-tion and analyze results
D. Right click on the simula-tion snapshot, select Profile Analysis > Profile Specification, and change the
attributes for the "what-if" scenario and then re-run the simula-tion and analyze results.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company's new approach to selling requires extensive resource planning. A team of process
analysts has been assembled to perform this work. Which option is sufficient to enforce consistent
simu-lations behavior across the team? All analysts:
A. set the same random number seed and process availability start and end dates in the simula-tion
profiles.
B. set the same random number seed, process availability start and end dates, and maximum simula-tion
duration in the simula-tion profiles.
C. set unique random number seed, process availability start and end dates, maximum simula-tion
duration and maximum number of process invocations in the simula-tion profiles.
D. set unique random number seeds and process availability start and end dates in the simula-tion
profiles.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A model is going to be simu-lated to capture results that represent as close to real conditions as
possible. What simu-lation setting should be used to ensure that the results reflect the random nature of
the process? The random number seed needs to be set to:
A. Zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. N
Answer: A

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NO.4 A process analyst has completed a process model and is required to validate it. One of the validations is
to ensure that there are no potential situations where a sequence of activities can be repeated indefinitely.
Using Static Analysis, how can the process analyst quickly validate that there are no sequence of tasks
that can potentially loop endlessly.?
A. 1. Run the Path Cycles Report.
2. Identify the cycle name assigned to each path cycle in the process and correlate that back to the
process model.
B. 1. Run the Activity Throughput Report.
2. Identify the throughput of all activities that deliver more outputs per hour than anticipated.
C. 1. Run the Activities Unable to Start Report.
2. Identify any activities that were not able to be invoked within the process, locate the preceding
construct that connects a downstream activity's output to an upstream activity's input.
D. 1. Run the Paths Unable to be Followed Report.
2. Identify any paths that were not able to be invoked within the process, and locate the preceding
construct that connects a downstream activity's output to an upstream activity's input.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A process analyst needs to conduct analysis on cost and duration of marketing related tasks in the
current process. In the current process, there are five possible paths. The process analyst needs to
identify the cost and duration of marketing related tasks for each path. The process analyst has decided
to create a classifier of Marketing to be assigned to the tasks in the current process. Which analysis
should be used?
A. Activities by classifier analysis.
B. Classifier cost and duration analysis.
C. Process case summary analysis.
D. Process classifier cost and duration analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibit.
A process analyst needs to simulate the behavior of the whole business process. How should the
simula-tion profile be set to accomplish this requirement?
A. Set the simula-tion to Evaluate all sub processes.
B. Set the Maximum number of process invocation to 10.
C. Set the simula-tion to Use resource time required as a task processing time.
D. Set the date of the Process availability ends greater than the Process availability begins.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which predefined process report shows the sequence of steps within a process and the relationships
of a process to other processes?
A. Process Details Report
B. Process Procedure Report
C. Process Specification Report
D. Process Level Details Report
Answer: B

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NO.8 When is it applicable to use a query?
A. To extract and view information about the elements of models.
B. To extract, view and print information about the elements of models.
C. To extract and view information about model elements and simula-tion results.
D. To extract, view, and print information about model elements and simula-tion results.
Answer: A

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NO.9 When reviewing the simu-lations results, the process analyst discovered that for each task in the
process that has multiple output criteria, the simula-tion engine would make a random selection of an
output path, and generate outgoing tokens for each output defined in the output criterion. Which of the
following settings was used during the simula-tion?
A. Randomly to a single path.
B. Based on an expression.
C. Based on probabilities to a single path.
D. Based on probabilities to multiple paths.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is an example of a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
A. Supplier response time.Supplier? response time.
B. Customer Order processing time.
C. Order must be processed within 3 days.
D. Working duration of a business process.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A process analyst has performed simu-lation upon a business process and is analyzing resource
allocation within the process. The average elapsed duration for the process is 2 hours, 57 minutes. After
running the Process Resource Dynamic Analysis Report, it is observed that the Field Tech Resource has
an average Quantity Allocated value of .6 units. The Process Resource Allocation Dynamic Analysis
Report is also generated against the simu-lation results, and it is determined that there is an Average
Shortage Duration of 37 minutes, 30 seconds for the resource. The process analyst also observes that
the Field Tech Resource has been defined to the process as a bulk resource with an availability value of 3.
Based on this information, what conclusions can the process analyst draw?
A. There is at least one case in the business process that does not allocate the Field Tech Resource. The
pool of available Field Tech Resources can be reduced to 1 to eliminate resources that are never
allocated to the process. This will not affect the Average Shortage Duration value.
B. There are too many Field Tech Resources available to the process, as the sum of all Field Tech
Resource allocations to activities in the process divided by the total number of process instances is less
than one. This indicates that some Field Tech Resources are never allocated the business process.
C. There is at least one case in the business process that does not allocate the Field Tech Resource,
however there are also multiple concurrent process instances that are allocating the resource
concurrently and are competing for the resource. The pool of available Field Tech Resources can be
increased to reduce the Average Shortage Duration and the Average Quantity Allocated would increase to
a value close to 1.0 units.
D. There is at least one case in the business process that does not allocate the Field Tech Resource,
however there are also multiple concurrent process instances that are allocating the resource
concurrently and are competing for the resource. The pool of available Field Tech Resources can be
increased to reduce the Average Shortage Duration and the Average Quantity Allocated would remain the
same in subsequent simula-tions.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A loan business process has an activity that has a role and a resource assigned. The role cost is $100
and the resource cost is $200. When the process is simulated what is the activity total cost?
A. The role cost ($100).
B. The resource cost ($200).
C. The sum of role and resource cost ($300).
D. The role cost multiplied by the activity duration.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A new payment process will be used to process transfer requests in the US and Europe where: 1)
payments should be processed on the same day of request Monday to Friday. 2) the number of European
and US requests is similar per day during normal working hours. Which option illustrates the input simu
lation setting that will help analyze this process?
A. Set a time trigger to receive requests assigning as start time a general timetable valid for the US and
Europe.
B. Set a time trigger to receive requests using a distribution with a general timetable for the US and
Europe.
C. Set a timetable trigger to receive requests assigning a general timetable valid for the US and Europe.
D. Set a timetable trigger to receive requests assigning a custom timetable specifying different periods for
the US and Europe.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A process analyst is simulating a process and the results indicate excessive wait times at some of the
activities. Which static analysis report would be useful in determining the cause of the excessive wait
times?
A. Activities by organization
B. Activity cost and duration
C. Activity resource and role leveling
D. Qualified resources for role
Answer: C

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NO.15 To display the names of all tasks in a process model in a table format, what must the process analyst
do to accurately define the table after adding the table to the report template?
A. 1. In the Properties View for the table, populate the Grouped By Field by navigating to and selecting the
immediate parent of the data to be displayed.
2. Select the appropriate table cell.
3. In the Properties View for the table cell, populate the Data Field Name by navigating to and selecting
the data element to be displayed.
B. 1. In the Properties View for the table, populate the Grouped By Field by navigating to and selecting the
immediate parent of the data to be displayed.
2. Create a Data Field within the appropriate table cell.
3. In the Properties View for the Data Field, populate the Data Field Name by navigating to and
selecting the data element to be displayed.
C. 1. In the Properties View for the table, populate the Data Field Path by navigating to and selecting the
immediate parent of the data to be displayed.
2. Select the appropriate table cell.
3. In the Properties View for the Data Field, populate the Data Field Path by navigating to and selecting
the data element to be displayed.
D. 1. In the Properties View for the table, populate the Data Field Path by navigating to and selecting the
immediate parent of the data to be displayed.
2. Create a Data Field within the appropriate table cell.
3. In the Properties View for the Data Field, populate the Data Field Path by navigating to and selecting
the data element to be displayed.
Answer: B

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NO.16 During an exception period, a resource could not complete a task before the end of the task's
processing time. What should be done to ensure that the resource remains allocated until the task is
completed?
A. Check "Use resources time required as a task processing time".
B. Check the preference "Run simula-tion without resource requirements".
C. Increase the "Task duration" to match the resource required time.
D. Set the task's "Resource wait time" to be the resource shortage time.
Answer: A

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NO.17 A process analyst has completed a future state process model and needs to validate it against process
improvement requirements. The future state process must be able to handle 25% more throughput than
the current state, while maintaining or improving process duration. Presently, the business process
handles 2000 requests daily. Using dynamic analysis, how can the process analyst validate whether the
future state process will satisfy these requirements?
A. 1. Simulate the current state process model at 2000 requests per day.
2. Simulate the future state process model at 2000 requests per day.
3. Generate a Processes Duration Comparison report to verify the Average Elapsed Duration of the
future state process model reflects a favorable percentage change over the current state process model.
B. 1. Simulate the current state process model at 2000 requests per day.
2. Simulate the future state process model at 2500 requests per day.
3. Generate a Processes Duration Comparison report to verify the Average Elapsed Duration of the
future state process model reflects a favorable percentage change over the current state process model.
C. 1. Simulate the current state process model at 2500 requests per day.
2. Simulate the future state process model at 2500 requests per day.
3. Generate a Processes Duration Comparison report to verify the Average Elapsed Duration of the
future state process model reflects a favorable percentage change over the current state process model.
D. 1. Simulate the future state process model at 2000 requests per day.
2. Simulate the future state process model at 2500 requests per day.
3. Generate a Processes Duration Comparison report upon the results of the future state process
model to verify the Average Elapsed Duration.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A process analyst is performing "What-If" analysis upon a process model using simu lation. Work can
arrive into the process at anytime. It has been observed that the 5 defined Field Technician resources
have significant resource shortage durations. The process analyst assumes that making more Field
Technician resources available to the process would decrease the shortage duration. Based on this
assumption, the analyst increases the available resources to 10. Subsequent simu lations do not show
significant reduction in the resource shortage durations. What steps should the process analyst take to
resolve the resource shortage duration and make updates for further process improvement?
A. Increase the available resources for the Field Technician from 10 to 20 to reduce the resource shortage
duration.
B. Reallocate the defined Field Technicians to additional second shift and weekend shift availability to
remove resource shortage duration due to unavailability overnight and during weekends.
C. Increase the time interval within the simula-tion snapshot settings to spread out the arrival of tokens,
allowing more time for the Field Technician to complete work before new work arrives, thereby reducing
resource shortage durations.
D. Decrease the Resource Time Required for activities assigned to the field Technicians, allowing them to
spend less time on tasks and be able to address more activities in a given interval, thereby reducing
resource shortage durations.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Refer to the Exhibit.
A process analyst has modeled the current state of a mortgage approval process as shown in the Exhibit.
Historical process performance measurements have indicated when there is an error in the filing of the
mortgage documentation, the corrective activities increase the process duration by 50% and the process
cost by 35%. How can the process analyst prove the current state model reflects this situation?
A. Assign an exception classifier to each activity associated with incorrectly filed documentation.
Run simula-tion analysis upon the process and determine its average cost and duration from the
simula-tion control panel. Generate the Classifier Cost and Duration report upon the simula-tion
results.
Compare the process' average cost and duration against the Classifier report's values.
B. Assign an exception classifier to each activity associated with incorrectly filed documentation
Run simula-tion analysis upon the process and generate the Process Cases Summary report.
Determine which cases represent process instances that perform activities associated with
incorrectly filed documentation.
Compare the average cost and duration of these cases against cases that do not perform these
corrective activities.
C. Run simula-tion analysis upon the process and generate the Processes Cost Comparison
report to compare the cost of the process between cases that perform corrective activities against
those that do not.
Repeat this comparison for duration by generating and analyzing the Processes Duration
Comparison report.
D. Assign an exception classifier to each activity associated with incorrectly filed documentation.
Run simula-tion analysis upon the process and generate the Process Classifier Cost and Duration
report.
Compare the total average costs and durations of the exception classifier activities against non-
exception activities.
Answer: B

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NO.20 A process analyst runs a simu lation that yields inaccurate results. Which analysis would a process
analyst use to identify looping paths in the process?
A. Path Cycles
B. Activity Throughput
C. Activities Unable to Start
D. Paths Unable to be Followed
Answer: A

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