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Exam Code: 000-109
Exam Name: IBM (Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux - v2 )

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NO.1 How can an existing AIX 5.2 LPAR, which is using SAN storage, be migrated into a versioned WPAR
(Workload Partition)?
A. Using LPM, but downtime will be required.
B. Dynamically using LAM.
C. Backup and restore a mksysb.
D. Rezone the SAN storage and use NPIV.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator is designing a new system for their existing batch environment. The current system is
a POWER5 570 with 16 cores and 128GB of RAM with a single LPAR running AIX 5.3. It takes 12 hours
to run their large batch job which is heavily CPU bound on 4 the available CPUs.
The new system will be a Power 770 with 16 cores, 128GB of RAM and the LPAR will run AIX 6.1.What
should be done to maximize the batch performance?
A. Activate TurboCore mode during batch processing
B. Disable Simultaneous Multi-threading
C. Disable Multiple Shared Processor Pools
D. Set the processor compatibility mode to POWER7
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator has the following configuration on a VIO Server:
Why is this error being displayed?
A. ent3 is configured as 'standard' instead of '802.3ad'
B. ent3 is a LHEA port and requires the -L flag
C. ent3 has no interface connected
D. ent3 is controlled by the SEA
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is required to support AME?
A. AIX LPARs
B. Virtual I/O Server
C. A maximum of 4GB of RAM per LPAR
D. On-demand memory feature enabled
Answer: A

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NO.5 What will cause a broadcast storm when configuring redundant VIO servers with SEA failover?
A. The secondary SEA is brought online before the configured primary SEA.
B. A mismatch of defined VLANs between the primary and secondary SEA.
C. The secondary SEA is created before enabling failover on the primary SEA.
D. Incorrect EtherChannel configuration on one SEA
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator is creating several LPARs on a new Power Systems server. The administrator knows
that Live Partition Mobility (LPM) will be used to distribute the workload between this new machine and
several others in the environment.
In addition to ensuring all storage is allocated through Virtual IO servers, what else must the administrator
take into consideration when creating the new LPARs?
A. LPAR names in the environment must be unique.
B. Redundant error path reporting must be configured.
C. Only LPARs belonging to the same workload group can be moved between servers.
D. The Virtual IO server code level must be the same across all servers.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When attempting to install a VIO client using NIM, an adminstrator finds that no disks are available for
installation. The disks are provided by NPIV through the virtual Fibre Channel adapter as described here:
Which of the following explains why is the administrator unable to see the disks?
A. The virtual fibre channel device has not been assigned to the client.
B. The HBA on the VIO server is not connected to the SAN.
C. The fibre device drivers are missing from the SPOT.
D. The LUNs have been incorrectly zoned.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An architect is looking at the implications of uncapped weights for a new POWER7 system. The
system will consist of four uncapped logical partitions with the following weightings:
Assuming all partitions have equal entitlement and virtual processor configurations in the partition profiles,
and request additional resources from the shared processor pool over a period of 1000 cycles, how many
cycles will be allocated to LPAR B?
A. 150
B. 250
C. 300
D. 1000
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator is attempting to configure a new deployment of 56 POWER7 Blades across 4 IBM
BladeCenter H chassis. Each blade will be installed with an IVM and 2 LPARs.IVM is installed and the
administrator checks that both LHEA ports are reporting a Link State of "Up." 2 LPARs are created and the
network traffic balanced by allocating one LHEA port to the first LPAR, the second port to the other. After
successfully installing the first LPAR via NIM, the administrator finds the second LPAR fails to netboot.
What should the administrator verify on the BladeCenter Chassis?
A. That 4 power supplies (PSU) have been installed.
B. That both the external LHEA ports have been cabled.
C. That a secondary I/O module has been installed and cabled.
D. That the Multi-Core Scaling (MCS) attribute is correctly set on both LHEA ports.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Requirements for a disaster recovery site are being collected. When considering restoring a VIO Server
mksysb to disaster recovery hardware,
what is required to ensure automatic virtual device recreation?
A. LPAR profiles must be accurately recreated on the foreign machine
B. Backups of both mksysb and user-defined structures are required from the VIO Server
C. The foreign machine must be of the same model and type
D. Configuration of the existing HMC needs to be preserved
Answer: A

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NO.11 What tool can an architect use to determine which is the smallest POWER7 server that will provide
equal or better overall performance than a POWER5 570?
A. Facts and Features Guide
B. LPAR Validation Tool
C. Configurator for eBusiness
D. Server Magic
Answer: A

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NO.12 The wlmstat -@ 2 command has been run from a global environment with the following results:
What action can an administrator take to set limits, so that both server1 and server2 use the same amount
of CPU resources?
A. Use the cpu_deallocate -P command to reduce the CPU resources on server2
B. Use the chsysres command to assign the same CPU attributes to both servers.
C. Use the chwpar -R command to set the CPU attributes for each server.
D. Use the syncwpar -E command to copy the CPU resource allocation from server1 to server2.
Answer: C

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NO.13 A Linux LPAR is configured using 802.1Q.
The virtual Ethernet device is configured as an 802.1Q compatible adapter and has VLAN ID 5 configured
in the 802.1Q additional VLAN field.
The administrator runs the following commands on the Linux LPAR shell without errors:
vconfig add eth0 5ifconfig eth0 10.0.0.2 netmask 255.255.255.0
When the administrator tries to ping 10.0.0.1, the request times out.
What is the problem?
A. The VLAN ID should be in the VLAN-ID field in the virtual Network device configuration.
B. The administrator is using the incorrect Ethernet device.
C. The 8021q module is not loaded.
D. The 802.1Q interfaces are not supported on Linux on Power Systems servers.
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator has a requirement to back up a VIO server (VIOS) so that it can be rebuilt in the event
of a disaster.
Which set of actions will achieve this requirement.?
A. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Backup all Storage Pool Information. Run a
mksysb of the system.
B. Save "Upgrade Data" on the HMC. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Run a mksysb
of the VIOS with the -U flag.
C. Backup non rootvg structures using savevgstruct. Capture virtual mappings to a file using viosbr. Run a
backupios
D. Capture the virtual network tuning to a file using the optimizenet command. Capture all virtual device
attributes to a file using the lsattr command. Run a backupios.
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator is preparing to upgrade the environment's dual Virtual I/O servers (VIOS) from V1.2
to V2.1
What must considered in preparation for this upgrade?
A. All client LPARs must be shutdown as both VIO servers have to be upgraded to V2.1 at the same time.
B. The VIOS must be upgraded to the latest fixpack of V1.5 before upgrading to V2.1.
C. The only upgrade method that will be supported is using NIM because the current VIOS is lower than
V1.3.
D. VIOS V2.1 requires AIX clients to be running AIX V6.1 at a minimum.
Answer: B

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NO.16 A Power 720 is being used to build 2 environments: Test and Production, with 2 LPARs in each
environment. Processor resources must be separated between the Test and Production environments to
reduce possible contention, while still being able to share processor resources inside each own
environment.
What are the two features required, as a minimum, to accomplish this? (Select 2)
A. IVM
B. HMC
C. PowerVM Express
D. PowerVM Standard
E. IVE
F. IBM Systems Director
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 An LPAR is configured using Virtual IO. It has two Virtual SCSI adapters, connecting it to two VIO
servers.
The disks presented over Virtual SCSI are available across both Virtual SCSI adapters (2 paths).
Assuming 20 disks are required, what is the maximum recommended queue depth to maximize
performance?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 510
D. 512
Answer: A

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NO.18 An administrator must remove any installed efixes before attempting to install a new VIO Fix Pack.
Which VIO command will advise if any VIO efixes are actually present?
A. lslpp
B. emgr
C. lssw
D. oem_platform_level
Answer: C

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NO.19 An administrator is performing a Live Partition Mobility (LPM) operation between two servers managed
by different HMCs.
While monitoring the performance of the partition, the virtual console window suddenly closes. What is the
most likely cause?
A. The virtual console is controlled by the HMC and closes when the second takes control of the partition.
B. The virtual console is a connection to the FSP of the physical server and closes when the LPAR
migrates.
C. The SSH keys have not been exchanged between HMCs.
D. The FSP has the MAC address for the first HMC cached in NVRAM.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which interface must be used to provide virtualization of tape library devices to client LPARs?
A. USB
B. LTO
C. Virtual SCSI
D. Virtual Fibre Channel
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-181
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules BRMS v7.1, Application Development)

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NO.1 A developer must set up a rule project. The developer has received three Java archive (.jar) files. The
first .jar file contains information related to the input parameter. The second .jar file contains information
related to the output parameter. The third .jar file contains utility methods that are not used by the rules or
by the other two .jar files. To create the BOM in the rule project, the developer should add:
A. two .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
B. two .jar files to the XOM and create two BOM entries.
C. all three .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
D. all three .jar files to the XOM and create three BOM entries.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A developer is implementing a new Business Rule Management System. The requirements say that the
rules should be valid for specific periods of time and no additional rule properties are required.
At a minimum, the developer should use:
A. the default extension model.
B. the plug-in extension model.
C. a specific extension data file.
D. a new extension model and new extension data file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The validation team is complaining because the WSDL generated by the Transparent Decision Service
is incomplete and does not allow for execution. When verifying the application, the developer realizes that
the schemas are not available. What should the developer do to resolve the problem?
A. Add the schemas in the BOM Editor.
B. Reference the schemas in the ruleapp project.
C. Package the schemas in the META-INF classes of the application.
D. Select the schemas in the dynamic execution object model property.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A company has a non-static BOM method void addLine(OrderLine line, String comment)in class Order.
Rule writers should be presented with the action phrase "add an item to an order with comment a string".
How should a developer verbalize this method.?
A. add <0, an item> to <this> with comment <1, a string>
B. add <line, "an item"> to <this> with comment <comment>
C. add {0, "an item"} to {this} with comment {1}
D. add {line, "an item"} to {this} with comment {comment}
Answer: C

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NO.5 The development team of a company needs to deploy their business rules in a testing environment and
a production environment. Rules with status "Defined" should be deployed to the testing environment,
while rules with status "Verified" should be deployed to the production environment.
What should the developer do to satisfy this requirement?
A. Create one project with one ruleset extractor based on a dynamic query, which takes rule status as a
parameter in the Ruleset Export wizard.
B. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two queries.
C. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two validator classes.
D. Create two rule projects, one for rules with status "Defined" and the other for rules with status
"Verified".
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M44
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SUT Advanced Level Technical Sales Mastery v1.0)

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NO.1 Which tool can add SUT subscribers?
A. CMP ?Common Management Portal
B. SBC ?Session Border Controller
C. TDI ?Tivoli Directory Integrator
D. A and C
Answer: C

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NO.2 What should be considered if a large configuration for TAS is planned?
A. There must be a 1:1 relation TAS to allocated media server.
B. At least one additional server for fail over purposes is required.
C. A maximum of 15000 users is allowed.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How many stand-by TAS do you need.?
A. One.
B. At least one per cluster using the same SAN-resources.
C. As many as the active TAS's.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are typical functions of a Session Boarder Controller?
A. Security ?to protect the network against attacks.
B. Connectivity ?NAT in the application layer.
C. Quality of Server ?Prioritization of flows.
D. A, B and C
Answer: D

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NO.5 What parameter of a SUT soft-phone client can you configure?
A. Allowed codecs.
B. Sequence of codecs in a list.
C. Rights to add/modify preferred devices.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which methods are defined to transfer the Billing Data to the Billing Server?
A. Push and Pull Method.
B. Send and Fetch Method.
C. Bring and Take Method.
D. Deliver and Retrieve Method.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A Session Boarder Controller can protect against _______________
A. denial of service attacks.
B. excessive phone usage.
C. data loss.
D. loud dial tone volume
Answer: A

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NO.8 Where can redundancy be applied?
A. Entire systems (to all components of system).
B. To the HD.
C. To the NIC.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which sequence for Initial Provisioning is correct?
A. Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Running the initial
provisioning process - Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
B. Installing TDI - Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Running the initial
provisioning process - Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
C. Installing TDI - Configuring setting section of settings.xml - Running the initial provisioning process -
Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
D. Installing TDI - Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Importing the
csv-output file via CMP.
Answer: B

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NO.10 How are the SUT user privileges for preferred devices managed?
A. Via a hidden config file on the client PC.
B. Via Policy settings on Sametime server.
C. Via registry entries on client PC.
D. Via different software versions of client plug-in.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-183
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Mesage Broker V7.0, Solution Development)

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NO.1 Consider the following ESQL code snippet from a Compute node.
What is the value of OutputRoot.XMLNSC?
A.NULL
B.<Winner/>
C.<Winner Name="Robert"/>
D.<Winner><Name>Rocky</Name></Winner>
Answer: D

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NO.2 A solution developer needs to help a software company to decide whether to use HTTP nodes or
SOAP nodes in developing web services.Which of the following benefits would the solution developer use
in support of SOAP nodes over HTTP nodes?
A.Support for a broker wide listener.
B.Support for runtime validation against WSDL.
C.Support for other web service standards, like REST and XML-RPC.
D.Support for external Web servlet container to provide listener support for a larger number of concurrent
sessions.E.Automatic processing of Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM).
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 When a message is received by an Input node in a message flow, the message assembly is
created.Which tree or trees are populated when an error free message is received by a FileInput node?
A.The Message tree only.
B.The Message tree and Environment tree.
C.The Message tree and LocalEnvironment tree.
D.The Message tree, Environment tree, LocalEnvironment tree, and ExceptionList tree.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A large company needs to interface their legacy application with a newly acquired Enterprise
Information System (EIS) application called Siebel CRM.Which transport service will the developer use to
discover metadata and send requests to the EIS system?
A.MQ Link for R3
B.WebSphere Broker Adapters
C.WebSphere Broker File Transport
D.WebSphere Business Integration Adapter
Answer: B

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NO.5 View the Exhibit:
The above flow processes a large incoming file line by line once every four hours.Performance is
unsatisfactory even though the server has spare memory and unused processors.Configuring additional
instances does not improve this.The following pair of flows was suggested by an architect.The first flow
will slice the incoming file into messages without any further processing, which is to be done by the
second flow.
What is the expected outcome if the second flow is configured with a large number of additional
instances?
A.Throughput will improve somewhat.Message sequence will not be affected.
B.Throughput will be unaffecte
D.Message sequence will most likely be affected.
C.Throughput will improve significantly.Message sequence will most likely be affected.
D.Throughput will deteriorate slightly due to the extra queuing.Message sequence will not be affected.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Consider the following two implementations of a request/response pattern.1) Asynchronous with a
separate flow for the response logic using an MQInput node
2)
Synchronous, completing the round trip in the same flow pulling the response message with an MQGet
node
Which of the following is FALSE?
A.Multiple flow instances will not help throughput in either implementation.
B.The synchronous implementation will require more memory, especially in scenarios with large
messages and high throughput requirements.
C.Given sufficient resources, the synchronous implementation will perform better in cases where large
amounts of data (i

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Exam Code: COG-706
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Financial Statement Reporting Developer)

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NO.1 What are two functions of a user role? (Choose two.)
A. Generate selected sections.
B. Create a workflow.
C. Work on assigned objects.
D. Create a report.
Answer: A, C

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NO.2 A user has certain objects tagged as custom group "Q1", but they should be tagged as "Q2/Q3" only.
How can this be resolved?
A. In the Status by Object table in the Report Summary node, highlight the objects and change the group
from "Q1" to "Q2/Q3".
B. Select the objects in the Section Pane, right-click, and select "Q2/Q3".
C. Navigate to each individual object, click on the "Set Customized Group" icon, deselect "Q1" and select
"Q2/Q3" from the list.
D. Navigate to each individual object, click on the "Set Customized Group" icon and select "Q2/Q3' from
the list.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator is working on a quarterly report and needs to add the new custom group "Q2/Q3".
Where can the administrator add this new group?
A. in the "Customized Group" table under Administration > Resources
B. in the Report Summary node of the report
C. in any FSR object of the report, open the "Set Customized Group" icon and add a new group to the list
D. the custom group is added to the workflow for the object
Answer: A

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NO.4 A client is loading data from an Excel spreadsheet but is not certain whether to enable the Allow query
variables in the path and sheet name. What do you tell the client?
A. This should never be enabled; it is not a supported function in the current version.
B. This feature will provide a dynamic link to Excel source files during the rollover process.
C. This feature will enable you to link data across reports.
D. This feature needs to be used to be able to load an Excel sheet; if it is not selected, the user will
receive an error when trying to complete the load.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A user created a snapshot of a report. Now they would like to send this snapshot for approval. How
would a user view the snapshot that was created.?
A. Use the "View Snapshot" icon.
B. Go to Tools > Snapshots.
C. Go to Administration > Resources > View Snapshots.
D. Right-click on the Section Pane and select View Snapshots.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have the administrator role and want to give a user special administrative tasks. Which three tasks
can be granted to the user role by the administrator? (Choose three.)
A. Add query to Excel.
B. Modify properties of an object.
C. Create sections for the report.
D. Audit report.
E. Assign tasks to user.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.7 To use a workflow rule, which two variables are required to be set up? (Choose two.)
A. ##WRI
B. ##IRS
C. ##WR
D. ##WS
Answer: C, D

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NO.8 The "Select the custom group to display" dropdown list in the Select Report dialog allows a user to filter
the objects that will display when a report is loaded. How can this be enabled for a user?
A. in the Tools > Report Setup window
B. on the user's machine, a configuration key will need to be added to the FSR configuration file
C. in the Task Permissions list in the Users table
D. in the Report Summary node of the report
Answer: B

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NO.9 A company compiled its 2010 Q2 quarterly report using an OLAP data source and a query variable for
the quarter. They are now performing a rollover from the 2010 Q2 quarterly report to the 2010 Q3
quarterly report. How do you ensure that the OLAP connection for the new Q3 quarterly report will
be updated with data from 2010 Q3?
A. Change the value for the quarter query variable from Q2 to Q3.
B. Update the value of the quarter field in the OLAP connection to Q3.
C. Change the ##S variable for the quarter to Q3.
D. Change the ##R variable for the quarter to Q3.
Answer: A

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NO.10 The report team finished their first draft of their report and now they would like to send a snapshot of this
report for review. How would a user create a snapshot?
A. Use the "Create Snapshot" icon.
B. Generate the entire report and check the "Save as Snapshot" option.
C. Every time a user saves, FSR will automatically create a new snapshot.
D. Go to Tools > Snapshots, then select the "Save as Snapshot" option.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-Z04
Exam Name: IBM (ZEnterprise Technical Update Mastery)

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NO.1 ISPF uses various function keys. Which of the following describes the mapping of these keys?
A.Different in every ISPF menu
B.Determined by operating system
C.Fixed by ISPF and cannot be changed
D.May be changed using the ISPF SETTINGS function
Answer:D

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NO.2 A customer recently ordered a z196 with a zBX.Which of the following is the best action a specialist
could take to ensure the customer is satisfied with the new zBX?
A.Review the hardware support process and the HMC documentation for the z196 CPC and the zBX
B.Conduct and "Fit for Purpose Study"
C.Conduct a z/VM Implementation Workshop
D.Mentor the customer on installing PowerVM and VMware
Answer: A

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NO.3 Once the sale of a System z has been made, which of the following individuals is responsible to ensure
that the implementation plan is executed?
A.IBM or Business Partner TDA Leader
B.IBM or Business Partner Technical Specialist
C.IBM Installation Planning Representative
D.IBM or Business Partner Client Representative
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer is planning an upgrade to a z114.They have indicated that they will be adding additional disk
storage in the future and want to make sure they have room for non disruptive future I/O growth.Which of
the following is the appropriate first action for the Technical Specialist?
A.Use the eConfig Plan Ahead feature to place an order for an additional I/O drawer but don
order any
cards until they need them.
B.Ask the sales specialist to give the customer a discount and order the cards at the end of the quarter
C.Carefully plan out the upgrade based upon the current I/O configuration.Confirm there is enough room
to support and add a future I/O drawer if needed.
D.The z114 hardware model M10 has more I/O adapters so you should order the M10 model which will
assure you have room for future growth.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer is considering a z196 with a zBX.Which of the following is the best action a specialist could
take to ensure customer satisfaction?
A.Conduct a "Fit for Purpose Study"
B.Conduct a z/VM Implementation Workshop
C.Mentor the customer on installing PowerVM and VMware
D.Review the hardware support process and the HMC documentation for the z196 CPC and the zBX
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M235
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Security Sales Mastery Test v4)

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NO.1 Which of the following Tivoli Security solutions offers the quickest approaches in terms of demoing,
estimating ROI and quick implementation?
A. Tivoli Identity Manager
B. Tivoli zSecure suite
C. Tivoli Key Lifecycle Manager
D. Tivoli Access Manager for Single Sign-On
Answer: B

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NO.2 The IBM Security Framework highlights the three ways in which IBM delivers security to our customers.
What are those three ways?
A. IBM Security Products, Professional Security Services, and Managed Security Services.
B. Professional Security Services, Managed Security Services, and Business Continuity Services
C. Managed Security Services, IBM Security Products, and Tier 1 OEM Security Vendors
D. Threat Mitigation Services, Data Security Services, and IBM Security Products
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the name of the IBM Security research and development organization:
A. Global Security Operations Center
B. X-Force
C. X-Cert
D. Security Intel Resource
Answer: B

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NO.4 Network IPS, Server Protection and VSP for VMware have which competitive advantages in common.?
A. Built-in firewalls and reverse proxying capability.
B. SSL Inspection capability and support for ISO 17843.
C. Rootkit detection and file integrity checking.
D. Backing by X-Force, largest number of protected protocols and file formats and the Protocol Analysis
Modular (PAM) technologies
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the key to the significant time and money efficiencies that Tivoli Identity Manager (TIM) is able
to afford customers'?
A. Quick install and time to operation.
B. Support for a large number of target environments.
C. Assignment of users to roles and provisioning policies based on roles rather than individual users.
D. Graphical user interface that's far superior to the competition.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M222
Exam Name: IBM (Tivoli Enterprise Asset Management Sales Mastery Test v2)

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NO.1 What is IBM Maximo Spatial Asset Management?
A.Geospatially enabled asset and service management
B.A Maximo add-on that provides remote asset management
C.An asset management solution used by NASA
D.An asset management solution to manage linear asset
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which of the following industries are customers are less likely to purchase Maximo Calibration?
A.Government
B.Oil and Gas
C.Life Sciences
D.Nuclear
Answer: A

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NO.3 Today, many companies use converged assets to support their business operations that are
responsible for managing the converged assets?
A.Plant Engineers have sole responsibility for delivering on the converged asset performance
B.ITManagers have sole responsibility for making decisions on how to manage the converged
asset
C.Plant engineers and IT Managers are jointly responsible for delivering high availability of the
converged asset performance
D.Neither Plant Engineers nor IT Managers focus on converged asset performance
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M245
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Automation Sales Mastery Test v4)

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NO.1 What is the name of the IBM Business Service Management solution that: Simplifies service model
maintenance through discovery integration, Provides Real-time status through Consolidated Operations
Management integration, and Calculates ° Key Pe rf o r m ance I nd i ca t o r ¡± b y l ev er a gi n g a ut om at e
acquisition of business metrics?
A. Tivoli Business Service Management
B. Tivoli Business Service Strategy
C. IBM Business Framework
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Name the solution that is offered as a component of TEM (Tivoli Endpoint Manager) for Lifecycle
Management, Security & Compliance and also offered as a standalone product.?
A. Patch Management
B. Version Management
C. Compliance Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is one of the processes which demands the most of human resources inside a complex IT
Environment?
A. Monitoring.
B. Track of changes and configuration.
C. View of the current environment.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9 Database and Application Fundamentals - Academic Initiative )

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NO.1 If table TABLE1 contains 50 rows, which of the following statement will only return the first five of the
rows?
A. SELECT * FROM table1 MAXROWS 5
B. SELECT * FROM table1 RETURN FIRST 5 ROWS
C. SELECT * FROM table1 WHILE ROW < 5
D. SELECT * FROM table1 FETCH FIRST 5 ROWS ONLY
Answer: D

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NO.2 The link between a column or set of columns in one table that refers to the set of column in another
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A. Pointer
B. Cursor
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is the correct syntax for using the XMLTRANSFORM SQL/XML function?
A. UPDATE XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE ID = 1
and XSLID = 2;
B. SELECT FROM XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE
ID = 1 and XSLID = 2;
C. SELECT INTO XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE
ID = 1 and XSLID = 2;
D. SELECT XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE ID = 1
and XSLID = 2;
Answer: D

IBM questions   000-302   000-302

NO.4 Consider TB1 has no rows initially and that the auto commit feature is disabled. After execution of the
following statements, how many rows will be inserted in TB1?
INSERT INTO TB1 VALUES (1, 'ABC')
INSERT INTO TB1 VALUES (2, 'DEF') COMMIT
INSERT INTO TB1 VALUES (3, 'GHI')
ROLLBACK
COMMIT
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

IBM   000-302   000-302   000-302

NO.5 Which of the following commands produces a backup image from a database?
A. START BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE USING D:\bkp
B. BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE TARGET= D:\bkp
C. BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE TO D:\bkp
D. START BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE TO D:\bkp
Answer: C

IBM   000-302   000-302

NO.6 Which of the following is true about the table below?
CREATE TABLE EMPLOYEE (ID INTEGER NOT NULL,NAME VARCHAR(30) NOT NULL,EXTENSION
INTEGER NOT NULL,MANAGER VARCHAR(30) NOT NULL
PRIMARY KEY (ID));
TERMINATE;
ID NAME EXTENSION MANAGER 1 John S 53412 Y 2 Susan P 54123 N 3 Jennifer L 51234 N
A. ID is a value found in the EMPLOYEE table
B. ID, 1, 2, 3 makes up a row in the EMPLOYEE table
C. The MANAGER domain consists only of the value Y
D. NAME, John S, Susan P, Jennifer L makes up a column in the EMPLOYEE table
Answer: D

IBM   000-302   000-302

NO.7 Which of the following is NOT displayed by DB2 Access Plan?
A. Properties for operators
B. Indexes or columns
C. Global information
D. Authorization type
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given the following table:
USERS
ID INTEGER NOT NULL
NAME CHAR(20) NOT NULL
PASSWORD VARCHAR(30)
Which INSERT statement is NOT correct?
A. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, 'Jim', 'password')
B. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, 'Jim', NULL )
C. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, '', 'password')
D. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, NULL, 'password')
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT a valid approach for storing XML documents?
A. Shredding XML documents into tables in a RDBMS
B. Storing XML documents in CLOB columns
C. Inserting XML documents in an integer column
D. Using an external XML-only database
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. A user can define multiple indexes for a single table in DB2.
B. An index for a table is used to improve SQL query performance.
C. An index can be defined on a view.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.11 User X needs access to server A and B, while user Y needs access to server B, C and D, how many
DB2 server licenses by PVU do they need in total assuming all users can be using all machines they have
access to at the same time?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B

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NO.12 Consider a table TAB1 having the following values:
TAB1
COL1 COL2
A 10 B 20 C 30 A 10 D 40 C 20
Consider the result of a given query:
COL1
A B
D
Which of the following statements would produce the given query result:
A. SELECT COL1 FROM TAB1 ORDER BY COL1 FETCH FIRST 4 ROWS ONLY
B. SELECT COL1 FROM TAB1 FETCH FIRST 4 ROWS ONLY
C. SELECT DISTINCT COL1 FROM TAB1
D. SELECT UNIQUE COL1 FROM TAB1
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is NOT a valid authentication type that can be used by DB2?
A. CLIENT
B. CLIENT_ENCRYPT
C. SERVER
D. SERVER_ENCRYPT
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is NOT a definition of a relation?
A. A relation may be thought of as a set of columns.
B. Each row represents a fact that corresponds to a real-world entity or relationship
C. Each row has a value of an item or set of items that uniquely identifies that row in the table
D. Each column typically is called by its column name or column header or attribute name
Answer: A

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NO.15 Consider the following statement. "Indexes can be created on computed columns." Is this statement:
A. True.
B. False.
C. True, but only when the column data is produced by a sequence.
D. False, but only when the column data is produced by a sequence.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Consider the following scenario:
Suday: full backup
Monday: delta incremental
Tuesday: incremental
Wednesday: delta incremental
Thursday: system crashed
Which of the following options contains the correct restore order so that the database can be restored to
the last stable moment before the crash.?
A. Restore the incremental backup from Tuesday and the incremental backup from Wednesday, then roll
forward the database using the transaction log files.
B. Restore only the delta incremental backup from Wednesday.
C. Restore the full backup from Sunday, the incremental cumulative backup from Tuesday, the
incremental delta from Wednesday, then roll forward the database using the transaction log files.
D. Restore the full backup from Sunday, the delta incremental from Wednesday, then roll forward the
transaction log files.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following statements can be used to increase in 10% the salary of all employees in
department D1?
A. UPDATE employees WHERE dept = 'D1' SET salary = salary * 1.1
B. UPDATE employees SET salary = (salary * 1.1)
C. UPDATE employees SET salary = salary * 1.1 WHERE dept = 'D1'
D. UPDATE salary = salary * 1.1 ON TABLE employees WHERE dept = 'D1'
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is NOT true about Database Management Systems?
A. Relational Database Management Systems use Structured Query Language to interact with
databases.
B. Database Management Systems act as an interface used to communicate with databases.
C. Applications can choose to bypass the Database Management System when accessing databases for
performance reasons.
D. DB2 is a Database Management System.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Consider the following. As the user MYUSER, you issue the following command:
CREATE ALIAS A1 for T1
What will be the result of the command?
A. The alias DEFAULT.A1 is created for DEFAULT.T1.
B. The alias MYUSER.A1 is created for MYUSER.T1.
C. The alias ALIAS.A1 is created for ALIAS.T1.
D. You get an error because your command is ambiguous, as the schema is not specifieD.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following statements CANNOT be issued against indexes?
A. CREATE
B. ALTER
C. DROP
D. All of the above can be issued against indexes.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-819
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Application Developer V8 Associate )

000-819 (Rational Application Developer V8 Associate ) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-819.html

NO.1 Which statement is true about displaying perspectives in a Rational Application Developer workbench
window?
A. Multiple perspectives can be open, but you can interact with only one in each workbench window.
B. Perspectives can be arranged and viewed simultaneously in the workbench.
C. Perspectives can be tiled into a single view.
D. A single perspective per workbench can be open.
Answer: A

IBM   000-819 exam dumps   000-819

NO.2 A development team is starting a new web application project and building a set of servlets for the first
time. Which two methods can be used to create an initial set of servlets for the project? (Choose two.)
A. take an existing Java class and select the Refactor to servlet option and follow the wizard screens to
configure the project and servlet parameters
B. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet in a Java project and add the project to the web
project as a Java utility project
C. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a "servlet" entry to the web application
deployment descriptor
D. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a "servlet" annotation
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 What is an example of an application component type?
A. Applet
B. Web Module
C. Resource Adapter
D. Deployment Descriptor
Answer: A

IBM   000-819 study guide   000-819

NO.4 A developer needs to debug an application. What can the developer do to get the debug perspective on
Rational Application Developer?
A. select Window -> Open Perspective -> (Other) -> Debug
B. select Window -> New Perspective -> Open -> Debug
C. select Window -> Debug
D. select Window -> Application -> Open -> Debug
Answer: A

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NO.5 A developer needs to check the state of one of the JSF Managed Beans when an application is paused.
Although all Managed Beans (and other scoped objects) can be found by looking at the FacesContext
object available in the Variables view, finding the objects this way can be difficult and time consuming.
What is the simplest way for a developer to check the state of scoped objects and view attributes?
A. create matches for scoped objects and view attributes and view the values at the Expression window
B. print the report of the scoped objects and view attributes, then filter the scoped object out of the list
C. execute the pauseTime.bat under the install_root/eclipse/plug-ins/scopedValue, which will print the
values of the scoped objects and view attributes
D. enable the runtime JVMPI values for the variables
Answer: A

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NO.6 Web 2.0 technologies improve the user interface of web-based applications and RAD8 provides support
for several of these technologies. Which two technologies supported by RAD8 are provided to make Web
2.0 easier? (Choose two.)
A. Dojo Javascript library
B. Web Security Editor
C. Ajax Proxy
D. Dynamic Page Template support (Tiles)
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 A developer needs to debug the application RAD8EJBWeb containing redbank.jsp on the server using
Rational Application Developer. What can be done to accomplish this task?
A. right-click redbank.jsp and select Debug As -> Debug on Server
B. create a software analyzer configuration and run it
C. right-click redbank.jsp and select Profile As -> Profile on Server
D. Open the Debug perspective as it automatically starts a debug session
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two are Session Bean interfaces.? (Choose two.)
A. local interface
B. remote interface
C. provider interface
D. external interface
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 What is the annotation for local interface?
A. @local
B. @localInterface
C. @Interface
D. @ejbLocal
Answer: A

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